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adverse posssession

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  • adverse posssession

    In California the law states 5 consecutive years of paying property taxes to have a judge grant title,the question is if the owner pays only one of the two annual taxes is this still considered a full year since it is only half?In other words the owner pays 1 of the 10 possible property taxes in 5 years how would a judge view this?Thanks

  • #2
    Re: adverse posssession

    ...timely paid all state, county, or municipal taxes that have been levied ...

    says the statute so "some" is likely not enough; note there are some exceptions such as when the taxes were never levied or property was exempt from taxes etc,
    So it's always good to have a local lawyer review it as well.

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    • #3
      Re: adverse posssession

      Tioga, if you think you are going to get somebody else's property that easy, think again.

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