California.
My ex husband, the non-custodial parent, has left the country. In doing a simple google search, it appears he sold his home in 2012 for a pittance of what it is worth. He owes significant arrears in child support, which was automatically collected through the state of California until he stopped working or collecting unemployment. My question is this: How could he sell his home when it supposedly had a lien on it (placed by child support services) for child support arrears? He sold the home for an amount that's just less than the arrears he owes. Is this a tactical move that would nullify the amount owed for the lien? Or under California law, would the lien still be enforced and 100% of proceeds from sale then be paid, since it's all owed in arrears? Please advise.
My ex husband, the non-custodial parent, has left the country. In doing a simple google search, it appears he sold his home in 2012 for a pittance of what it is worth. He owes significant arrears in child support, which was automatically collected through the state of California until he stopped working or collecting unemployment. My question is this: How could he sell his home when it supposedly had a lien on it (placed by child support services) for child support arrears? He sold the home for an amount that's just less than the arrears he owes. Is this a tactical move that would nullify the amount owed for the lien? Or under California law, would the lien still be enforced and 100% of proceeds from sale then be paid, since it's all owed in arrears? Please advise.
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