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My partner and I owned a marketing company for more than a year. We signed a partnership agreement stating that of all the money invested by either partner the liability would be spread equally between us. In starting the company I funded most of the start up costs. i.e. $40,000 After all of the money was spent and we were started up we signed a subsequent agreements with all of the numbers stating that he owed $20,000 and I assumed the risk of the $20,000 already invested. Long story short he left and starting working for another company and never paid a dime on the commitment which he had signed.
My question is of course he has given me the run around for 8 months and I was wondering if I could prosecute him. He has no house, 3 kids and a wife that doesn't work at this time. He has a high paying job, but I am wondering if the court would attach wages or anything else due to him not owning anything. I just don't want to throw any more money away if the court can't help me.
thanks for your insight.
My question is of course he has given me the run around for 8 months and I was wondering if I could prosecute him. He has no house, 3 kids and a wife that doesn't work at this time. He has a high paying job, but I am wondering if the court would attach wages or anything else due to him not owning anything. I just don't want to throw any more money away if the court can't help me.
thanks for your insight.
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